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Question # 5

A 69-year-old patient with non-valvular atrial fibrillation and a history of a recent ischemic stroke is prescribed apixaban for secondary stroke prevention. The patient asks the SCRN nurse why this medication is preferred over taking regular aspirin. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like apixaban target the coagulation cascade to prevent cardioembolic clots originating from the fibrillating atria far more effectively than antiplatelets.

B.

Apixaban lowers blood pressure, whereas aspirin only manages cholesterol.

C.

Apixaban dissolves existing arterial plaque within the carotid arteries.

D.

Aspirin is only effective for animals and has no role in human medicine.

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SCRN Overview

Name Stroke Certified Registered Nurse (SCRN) Examination
Code SCRN
Vendor Nursing
Certification American Board of Neuroscience Nursing (ABNN)

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