Question # 29

A 66-year-old patient with non-valvular atrial fibrillation and a history of a recent ischemic stroke is prescribed rivaroxaban for secondary stroke prevention. The patient asks the SCRN nurse why this medication is preferred over taking regular aspirin. Which of the following explanations is most accurate?

Options:

A.

Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) like rivaroxaban target the coagulation cascade to prevent cardioembolic clots originating from the fibrillating atria far more effectively than antiplatelets.

B.

Rivaroxaban lowers blood pressure, whereas aspirin only manages cholesterol.

C.

Rivaroxaban dissolves existing arterial plaque within the carotid arteries.

D.

Aspirin is only effective for animals and has no role in human medicine.

Viewing question 29 out of 47 questions
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