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Question # 66

A 32-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea for 8 months. Pregnancy test is negative. Prolactin is elevated; MRI shows a 9-mm pituitary mass. Best initial management?

Options:

A.

Transsphenoidal surgery

B.

Cabergoline or bromocriptine

C.

Combined oral contraceptive pills

D.

Radiation therapy

Viewing question 66 out of 72 questions
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PANCE Overview

Name Physician Assistant National Certifying Examination
Code PANCE
Vendor Medical Professional
Certification National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants (NCCPA)

PANCE Questions